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I keep seeing people trying to define judgement and taste and then they don’t actually like cite Kant’s Critique of Judgement where this is basically the entire concern.


Hume also has an essay about this. People don't read philosophy anymore. They think blog posts are just as good, or at least more "relevant", somehow.


I'm not disagreeing with you at all, but I have personally found most philosophy "classics" painfully hard to get into. That doesn't mean they shouldn't be respected, but the truth is that sections of society (like myself) do rely on the people specializing in philosophy parsing it into current language and metaphor.


Truth is hard to get into. If it were simple and digestible, we wouldn't all keep seeking it, ever hungry for it... It has to be grappled with. You can't shake truth's hand and have a seat and have it flow into you smoothly from the latest self help book.


Look I mean, many famous artists don't understand their work at all. You don't have to have read philosophy to create something meaningful or make an insightful comment. But if you are going to start using terms like Judgement or Taste, you really ought to know where they come from.


Speaks more to the myopia of developers than anything else.


Most people in Comp Sci don’t read Kant unless they have a concentration in Artificial Intelligence, so I’m not blaming them.


I'm not only referring to that, I'm also referring to a reductionist view when I read "Taste Is All That's Left" - which is a statement that has been mindlessly parroted around as of late.


Yeah even if Dev Schumer is some absurd hype artist he was correct to note that it is judgement and taste, not taste alone, that is most key now. Although he attributed it to the models own subjectivity.


Why is it a reductionism view? A true reductionist will no doubt claim taste won't left as well, at least not as a non-private langauge.


Shouldn't this 236-year-old paper be updated in accordance with, say, neuroeconomics research on how provenance influences aesthetic taste?


That would be a posteriori, and thus not a claim about cognition but a claim about individual minds


Philosophers are still considering it possible to infer things about aesthetic taste a priory? Good luck, I guess.


Nor the work of sociologists like Bourdieu's Distinction.




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